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You will have three hours to answer 114 questions in total from all 4 sections of the exam. Please note that some sections may have additional instructions.
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REVISING/EDITING
Directions: For questions 1 to 6, you will be asked to recognize and correct errors in sentences or short paragraphs.
(1) Science offers the hope of preventing serious generic diseases.
(2) There are difficult ethical questions raised by the possibility of altering human heredity.
1. What is the best way to combine these sentences to clarify the relationship between the ideas?
Advanced training in a foreign language is intellectually satisfying and is likely to helpful in such fields
as education and international business.
2. Which edit should be made to correct this sentence?
(1) But now the men who had come home from the war found their whole agricultural labor
system turned upside down. (2) Slave labor had been their absolute reliance. (3) They had been
accustomed to it. (4) They had believed in it and they had religiously regarded it as a necessity in the…
3. Which sentence should be revised to correct the error?
At the 2004 Olympic Games, Michael Phelps a swimmer for the United States, set world records for
butterfly and freestyle.
4. Which edit should be made to correct this sentence?
(1) In 1792, A distinguished French astronomer and author of one of the most fascinating works on
popular astronomy, remarks that a man would be looked upon as a maniac whom should speak of the
influence of Jupiter’s moons upon the cotton trade. (2) Yet, as he proceeds to show, there is an easily
traced connection between the ideas that appear at first sight so incongruous. (3) The link is found in
the determination of celestial longitude. (4) The discoverer is Sir William Herschel, who early saw the…
5. Which sentence should be revised to correct the error?
After assessing the need to reinforce the building for earthquakes, the structural engineer needed to
figure out the materials that would improve the structure.
6. The most precise revision for the words figure out the materials that would improve the structure?
Directions: Read the passages below to answer questions 7 to 20. The questions will focus on improving the writing quality of the passage to follow the conventions of standard written English.
7. Which edit is needed to correct sentence 2?
8. What is the best way to combine sentences 4 and 5 to clarify the relationship between ideas?
9. Which sentence would best follow sentence 8 to support the argument presented in the passage?
10. Which sentence is irrelevant to the topic presented in the passage and should be deleted?
11. Which revision of sentence 11 uses the most precise language?
12. Which sentence would best follow and support sentence 13?
13. Which concluding sentence should be added after sentence 16 to support the argument presented in the passage?
14. Which edit is needed to correct sentence 1?
15. What is the best way to combine sentences 2 and 3 to clarify the relationship between ideas?
16. Which sentence would best follow and support sentence 6?
17.Which sentence would best follow sentence 11 to support the argument presented in the passage?
18. Which revision should be added to the beginning of sentence 5?
19. Which revision of sentence 9 uses the most precise language?
20. Which concluding sentence should be added after sentence 12 to support the topic presented in the
passage?
Reading Comprehension
Questions 21-57
Directions: Analyze the passages below, and answer the commensurate questions. Only use
information provided within the passage for your answers. There is only one answer for each
question.
21.Which of the following best tells what this passage is about?
22. What color are the tent caterpillar moths?
23.Which of the following is not a means of tent caterpillar control mentioned in the passage?
24. When do tent caterpillar eggs hatch?
25. What is meant by the word “sport” in line 33?
26. How long do tent caterpillars remain in their cocoons?
27. What is the purpose of the use of repetition in the following passage?
It was a night of little ease to his toiling mind, toiling in mere darkness and besieged by questions
28. What is the setting of the story in this passage?
29. What can one infer about the meaning of the word “juggernaut” from the author’s use of it in the passage?
30. What is the definition of the word haunt in the following passage?
From that time forward, Mr. Utterson began to haunt the door in the by street of shops. In the morning before office
hours, at noon when business was plenty of time scares, at night under the face of the full city moon, by all lights and
at all hours of solitude or concourse, the lawyer was to be found on his chosen post.
31. The phrase labyrinths of lamplighted city contains an example of what?
32. What can one reasonably conclude from the final comment of this passage?
“If he be Mr. Hyde,” he had thought, “I should be Mr. Seek.”
33. Which of the following best tells what this passage is about?
34. What is the author’s main purpose in including lines 4-10 (“every Friday…townspeople”) ?
35. The author includes the question in lines 3-4 (“But…marching band?”) most likely to
36. The author provides which of the following as evidence that band members form strong bonds with one another?
37. The word “camaraderie” (line 66) most likely means
38. With which statement would the author most likely agree?
39. In lines 4-12 (“They…so on.”) the author is
40. In the second paragraph, the author makes the point that our knowledge of whales is
41. The author suggests that measuring the whales’ worth by human standards is undesirable because
42. In line 14, what does the author mean by the statement that “these are not sentimental claims”?
43. The author quotes Henry Beston in the last paragraph in order to
44.Lines 40-42 (“caught…life.”) suggests that
45. Which of the following best describes the passage?
46. Based on the passage, which areas are most prone to earthquakes and why?
47. Based on the passage, which of these scenarios would be unlikely to cause an earthquake?
48. Based on the passage, which of these cities would probably be least prone to earthquakes?
49. Based on the passage, which of these statements is not true about the Mediterranean?
50. What does the word “induced” in Paragraph 5 mean?
51. What is this passage mostly about?
52. According to the passage, who was victorious in the war between Antigonus and King Pyrrhus?
53. How best could the beliefs of Petrarch be described?
54. What is not cited as a reason Caesar was upset about the death of his former foe?
55. The author’s discussion most nearly relates to which of the following scenarios?
56. Tears are meant to represent what emotion throughout the passage?
57. According to the final paragraph, how are the body and soul similar?
Mathematics
Suggested Time: 90 minutes
57 questions
Grid-In Problems
Questions 58-62
Directions: The following five questions are grid-in problems. On the answer sheet, please be sure to
write your answer in the boxes at the top of the grid. Start at the left side of each grid.
58. How many prime numbers less than 50 are divisible by 3?
59. A 10 L bucket is leaking at a constant rate of 2 liters of water every 9 minutes. If the bucket is currently 1/3 empty, in how many minutes will the bucket be completely empty?
In the figure above, polygon BCD is an equilateral triangle that lies on the line AC with point B. What is the value of | m – p |?
61. A survey asked students how they get to school. Based on the results, the following statements are all true.
How many students were surveyed?
A circular dial controls the speed of a motor.
Three-fourths of the dial has been calibrated from 0 to 6 large units and each large unit is further calibrated to 5 smaller subunits. Each large unit of the dial increases the speed of the motor by 150 revolutions per minute (rpm). If you rotate the dial to 189° from zero mark, what will be the speed of the motor?
Multiple Choice Problems
Questions 63-114
Directions: Select the best answer from the choices given by carefully solving each problem. Bubble
the letter of your answer on the answer sheet. If you need to erase, please erase thoroughly.
63. In a certain class, 3 out of 24 are in student organizations. What is the ratio of students in student organizations to students not in student organizations?
64. A coordinate grid (not shown) has pentagon ABCDE with vertices A(3, 0), B(4, 0), C(4, 7), D(0, 7) and E(0, 5). What is its area?
65. The price of a newspaper rises from 5 cents to 15 cents. What is the percent increase in price?
66. If (√n/3) is an integer, which of the following could be the value of n?
67. If xaxb=1 and x ≠ 1, then a + b =
68. If the graph above represents the majors of the entire junior class, what is the ratio of juniors majoring in Physical Sciences to all juniors?
69. If 13 + a = 25 + b, then b – a =
70. Greg’s weekly salary is $70 less than Joan’s, which is $50 more than Sue’s. If Sue earns $280 per week, how much does Greg earn per week?
71. Given the above definitions for all real integers x and y. If (2) = m, then [m] is equal to which of the following?
72. If Sherman earns $2,000 for his first 40 hours of work in a week and is then paid 50% more than his regular hourly rate for any additional hours, how many hours must he work to make $2,300 in a week?
73. Chris has twice as many baseball cards as Lee. If Chris gives Lee 10 of his baseball cards, he will have half as many baseball cards as Lee. How many baseball cards do Chris and Lee have together?
74. The figure above shows an example of a 4-digit identification code used by a certain bank for its customers. If the code consists of the numbers 0 through 9 but cannot start with a 0 or use any digit more than once, what is the difference between the largest and smallest possible codes?
75. Robert purchased $2,000 worth of US savings bonds. If bonds are sold in $50 to $100 denominations only, which of the following cannot be the number of US savings bonds that Robert purchased?
76. A music shelf contains 12 jazz albums, 16 world music albums, 24 country music albums, and some pop music albums. If the chances of picking one pop music album at random from the shelf are 1 out of 3, how many pop music albums are there on the shelf?
77. Bus X travels 40 miles per hour for 2 hours; Bus Y travels 60 miles per hour for 90 minutes. What is the difference, in miles, between the number of miles traveled by Bus X and the number of miles traveled by Bus Y?
78. Given a, b, and c where 0 < a < b < c, which of the following CANNOT be true?
79. The average score of 10 players was 6.5. One player’s score was dropped, changing the mean of the remaining scores to 6.0s. What score was dropped?
80. ab(a + b)(a – b) =
81. △ABC has side lengths of 6, 8, and 10 units. Right triangle △XYZ, with a hypotenuse of length 25 units, is similar to △ABC. What is the ratio of the area of △ABC to the area of △XYZ?
82. Based on the number line above, which of the following represents a negative quantity?
83. In February, the value of stock A was $26.00 per share and the value of stock B was $24.80 per share. If stock A increases in value by $0.45 each month while stock B increases in value by $0.75 each month, in what month of the same year will the values of the two stocks be the same?
84. Nancy has five golden nuggets. The largest nugget is worth $50. The second nugget is worth 80% of the first nugget’s value, the third nugget is worth 80% of the second nugget’s value, and so on. How much are all five nuggets worth together?
85. Rod, Stewart, and Tebow won a lottery of $1,040. After using the jackpot to pay for a celebration lunch which cost $30 per person and to donate $50 to a charity, they agreed to share the rest of the money in a 3:4:5 ratio among Rod, Stewart, and Tebow, respectively. How much more money did Tebow receive than Stewart?
86. Which of the following inequalities correctly represents a number m that is less than or equal to twice the value of a number n is less than 2?
87. Iron weighs 7,870 kilograms per cubic meter. What will be the weight of a solid iron bar 2 meters long, 5 meters wide, and 3 meters thick?
88. A jar has only red candies and green candies. If the probability of randomly choosing a red candy is initially 1/3. After 15 green candies are removed from the jar, the probability of randomly choosing a red candy improves to 3/4. How many green candies were originally in the jar?
89. During a ten-day period, Oscar spends a certain amount of money every day. The amount of money he has at the end of each day can be shown by y = 250 – 5x. Which of the following represents the amount of money at the start of the ten-day period?
90. At a certain photography store, it costs Pete $3.20 for the first print of a photograph and $0.34 for each additional print. How many prints of a particular photograph can Pete get for $10?
91. A laboratory has 55 rabbits, some white and the rest brown. Which of the following could be the ratio of white rabbits to brown rabbits in the lab?
92. If snow falls at the rate of x centimeters per minute, how many hours would it take y centimeters to fall?
93. The first term of a certain sequence is 5. If every term after the first term is 3 less than 2 times the term immediately preceding it, what is the positive difference between the third and fourth terms?
94. A motorist travels 90 miles at a rate of 30 miles per hour. If he returns the same distance at a rate of 45 miles per hour, what is his average speed for the entire trip, in miles per hour?
95. The contributions of 15 people to a certain charity are shown above. What is the difference between the median contribution and the average (arithmetic mean) contribution?
96. A machine labels 50 bottles a minute. If labeled bottles are packaged into boxes of 30 bottles per box, how long would it take the machine to label enough bottles to completely fill 75 such boxes?
97. What is the minimum number of rectangular tiles, each 12 centimeters by 18 centimeters, needed to completely cover 5 flat rectangular surfaces, each 60 centimeters by 180 centimeters?
98. In the xy-plane, a circle has center P (5,6) and intersects the x-axis at a single point Q (5,0). What is the area of circle P in terms of π?
99.
23, 19, 15, 11 . . .
In the sequence above, each number is 4 less than the previous number. What is the first negative number to appear in this sequence?
100. The above sign is posted at an arctic trading post. Money is not accepted and the only the listed items can be exchanged. Which item is the most valuable?
101. Joseph needs $243 to buy a new bicycle. He has saved $66 so far and saves $8 per week. In how many weeks will Jared have saved enough to buy the bicycle?
102. What is the greatest common factor of 105 and 126?
103. A certain box contains baseball and golf balls. If the ratio of baseballs to golf balls is 2:3, and there are 30 baseballs in the box, how many more golf balls are there than baseballs in the box?
104. If a kilogram is equal to approximately 2.2 pounds, which of the following is the best approximation of the number of kilograms in one pound?
105. If 48 of the 60 seats on a bus were occupied, approximately what percent of the seats were not occupied?
106. What is the percent discount on a jacket marked down from $120 to $100?
107. For all pairs of real numbers M and N where M = 6N + 5, what is N in terms of M?
108. In xy – plane, point x has coordinates (-4,0) and point y has coordinates (0, -8). What are the coordinates of the midpoint of line xy?
109. If a car travels at an average rate of 0.01 kilometers each second, how many kilometers does it travel each hour?
110. Which of the following is equivalent to the inequality 10 > 6 – x?
111. The average (arithmetic mean) of six numbers is 6. If 3 is subtracted from each of 4 of the numbers, what is the new average of the six numbers?
112. In space, star A is 10 light years away from star B and star B is 50 light years away from star C. Which of the following could be the distance between star A and star C?
113. One spoonful of sugar weighs 0.7 oz. What will be the weight of 120 spoonfuls of sugar?
114. If x is a positive and 𝑥2 = 68, between 2 which two numbers does x lie?
