PART 1 — ENGLISH LANGUAGE ARTS

57 QUESTIONS

REVISING/EDITING

Directions: For questions 1 to 5, you will be asked to recognize and correct errors in sentences or short paragraphs.

1. Read this paragraph.

Which sentence in the paragraph should be revised to correct the use of passive voice?

2. Read this sentence.

How could this sentence be rewritten to eliminate the use of passive voice? 

3. Read this paragraph.

Which sentence in the paragraph should be revised to correct comma use?

4. Read this sentence.

Which revision is the most necessary to correct the sentence?

5. Read this Paragraph

Which sentence is least relevant and sgould be removed from the paragraph?

Directions: Read the passages below to answer questions 6 to 13. The questions will focus on improving the writing quality of the passage to follow the conventions of standard written English.

6. Which sentence could be elimintaed from the first paragraph without detracting from the main ideas of the paragraph?

7. Which revision of sentence 5 makes proper use of commas?

8. What is the best way to combine sentences 6 and 7 to clarify the relationship between ideas and reduce wordiness?

9. Which transition word should be added to sentence 8?

10. Which edit is needed to correctly sentence 9?

11 .Which of these would best follow sentence 11 to provide support?

12. How could sentence 14 best be split into two sentences to group related ideas together?

13. Which sentence is least relevant to paragraph 3 and could be removed?

Directions: Read the passages below to answer questions 14 to 20. The questions will focus on improving the writing quality of the passage to follow the conventions of standard written English.

14. How could sentence 1 be revised to eliminate the use of “to be” verbs?

15. Which revision of sentence 4 correctly formats the use of numbers?

16. Which of the following sentences could be removed from paragraph 1 without detracting from its main ideas?

17. Which edit is necessary to correct sentence 8?

18. How could sentences 11 and 12 be combined to clarify the relationship between ideas?

19. Which edit is necessary to correct sentence 22?

20. How could sentence 23 be revised to prevent reader confusion?

Reading Comprehension
Questions 21-57
Directions: Analyze the passages below, and answer the commensurate questions. Only use
information provided within the passage for your answers. There is only one answer for each
question.

21. What is this passage predominantly about?

22. What is not provided as a possible etymological origin of the term “caucus?”

23. According to the passage, at what point in the election process does a caucus occur?

24. What does John Adams imply to be an issue with caucuses?

25. What would be an example of a caucus?

26. How frequently are presidential candidates of a party selected by caucus, according to the passage?

27. What is the main idea of this passage?

28. What is the origin of the term “bar?”

29. A member of the bar is both assigned special legal rights and ___

30. What is Hephæstus shielding Achilles from?

31. What does the author imply about Pericles?

32. Under what conditions would an Athenian call upon a friend for legal support?

33. Which of the following best tells what this passage is about?

34. When did the kiwifruit first become a commercial crop?

35. What does the passage imply about the earliest kiwifruit grown in New Zealand?

36. Which of the following statements about the popularity of the kiwifruit would the author most likely agree with?

37. What do the kiwifruit and the kiwi bird have in common?

38. What is the most likely reason that the author states “The first kiwifruit vines in New Zealand were prized as much for their beauty and for their fruit” (lines 14-16)?

39. Which best sums up the main idea of the passage?

40. According to Dr. Kritsky, how long is the proboscis of the hypothetical giant moth?

41. Which of the following events happened most recently?

42. According to Dr. Kirtsky’s theory, as the orchid’s nectar tube grew longer,

43. Which of the following, if it had occurred, would most seriously challenge Dr. Kritsky’s theory?

44. In lines 46-47, what docs the author mean by the statement that the existence of the giant moth “remains purely hypothetical”?

+

45. What is the tone of the first paragraph of this passage?

46. Which word CANNOT be used synonymously with the term obdurate as it is conveyed in the text below?

Who so obdurate and dead to the claims of gratitude, that would not thankfully acknowledge such priceless benefits?

47. What is the central purpose of this text?

48. Which statement serves as evidence for the question above?

49. The statement below features an example of which of the following literary devices?

Oh pity! Your high independence only reveals the immeasurable distance between us.

50. The speaker’s use of biblical references, such as “rivers of Babylon” and the “songs of Zion,” helps the reader to do all EXCEPT which of the following?

51. Which of the following best tells what this passage is about?

52. According to the passage, why did Brandon train monkeys to respond to dots on a video screen?

53. Which of the following tasks would Brannon’s monkeys most likely find the easiest?

54. What is most likely the primary purpose of the “apple juice or Kool-Aid” (lines 30-31) in Brannon’s experiment?

55. The passage states that, compared to Brannon’s monkey’s, the “college students” (line 43) performed number addition

56. In lines 56-57, what does the author mean by the statement that monkeys use essentially “the same process with the same rules” as humans?

57. As used in line 61, “separates” most nearly means

Mathematics
Suggested Time: 90 minutes
57 questions
Grid-In Problems
Questions 58-62
Directions: The following five questions are grid-in problems. On the answer sheet, please be sure to
write your answer in the boxes at the top of the grid. Start at the left side of each grid.

58. If Sarah scored an 80,95,75 and an 90 on her first four tests, what must she score on her fifth test if she wants an average of 88?

59. Solve for x

60. Lea’s school is selling tickets for the upcoming choral performance. On the first day of ticket sales, the school sold 10 adult tickets and 10 child tickets for a total of $200. On the second day, the school sold 13 adult tickets and 2 child tickets for a total of $172 dollars. How much did each child ticket cost?

61. In a population of 10,000 geese the growth rate is 4% per year. What is the total increase in population over 4 years? Round your answer to the nearest whole number.

62. 

Multiple Choice Problems
Questions 63-114
Directions: Select the best answer from the choices given by carefully solving each problem. Bubble
the letter of your answer on the answer sheet. If you need to erase, please erase thoroughly.

63. (√100)(√64)

64. 7.2 Aliens = 1 monster
      1 monster = 15.5 oranges

Using the equation above, how many oranges are equal to 1 alien?

65. What is the greatest common factor of 147 and 98?

66. 

67. Lucy scored a 85, 64 and 76 on her math exams. What score must Lucy obtain on the next math test to have an average of exactly 80?

68. Helga has 4 dogs, 3 cats and 2 birds. If she closes her eyes and picks one animaL what is the probability that it does not have 4 legs?

69. If y = x² • x^x , what is y when x = 2?

70. Train A, traveling at 200mph, leaves station A at 1P.M. Train B, traveling at 300mph, leaves station B at 3P.M. Both stations are directly across from each other and X miles away. If the trains meet at 4P.M., what is X?

71. Bernard is now y years old. Luis is 8 years older than Bernard. In terms of y how old was Luis 5 years ago?

72.

In the figure above, ABC, DBE, EFG and CFH are straight line segments. What is the value of x?

73. Which of the following shows the fraction (13/3), (37/8), and (19/4) in order from greatest to least?

74. If x and y are intergers, which is always even?

75.

76. If 50% of 2y is 12, what is y²

77.

78. If y = (3/4) and xy² = (9/16), what is (x – 4)?

79. If P is an odd interger, which of the following must be an even number?

80. If the diameter of a cirlce is P, and (P² / 4) = 2, what is the area of a circle?

81. If a regualr polygon has (N – 10) sides, where, N = (40/10)², what is the measure of one of it’s angles?

82.

83.

84. What is the least common multiple of 4, 16, 25 and 30?

85. How many positive integers are between -7/3 and 5/2?

86. The perimeter of a rectangle is 80 inches. If the width is 18 inches, what is the area of the rectangle?

87. If 7| – x – 3| = b. If x = -3, what is b?

88. 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + … + 100 =

89. When m is divided by 6, the remainder is 4. What is the remainder when (m + 3) is divided by 6?

90. From a box containing 4 black marbles, 6 pink marbles, 7 white marbles, and 4 yellow marbles, Eric removed 3 marbles, one of which is pink. If he removes another marble at random, what is the probability that it will be pink?

91. What percent of 4 is ⅔ of 8?

92. 48 < x² < 65
    24< y² < 37

Given the inequalities above for integers x and y, which of the following CANNOT be the value of (x + y)?

93. Jessica gives x stamps from her collection to Benjamin and then adds y more new stamps hack to the collection. If Jessica now has r stamps in her collection, how many stamps did she have in the collection before the two transactions?

94. Half of three sources of funds x, y, z is to be divided between n number of projects. Which formula below must be used for the purpose?

95. In a country, there are only 1-gil coins, 3-gil coins, and 10-gil coins. What is the set of all possible gil values that can be obtained by using an odd number of total coins and using no more than one of each type of coin?

96. A 15 pound mixture of sand and gravel is 2/3 sand and 1/3 gravel. If another pound of gravel is added to the mixture, what fraction of the final mixture will be sand?

97. A straight line that passes through points (2, 3) and (3, 5) does not pass through the point

98. Benjamin can prime 40% of a certain wall with a gallon of primer. After the wall is completely primed, Moore can paint one-third of the wall with a gallon of paint. How much more paint than primer are needed to prime and paint this wall?

99. The average score of 10 bowlers on a bowling team was 195. However, one of the bowlers tested positive for performance enhancing drugs. His score was dropped and the average score of the remaining bowlers became 180. What was the score that was dropped?

100.

The sides of a rectangle ABCD measure 6 units by 10 units. The corner “A” of the rectangle is at (—4, —2) on a standard graph sheet. It is observed that the point (1,6) is definitely inside the rectangle. What are the coordinates of the corner “C” of the rectangle, which is the diagonally opposite corner to “A”?

101. Four consecutive multiples of 10 have a sum of 300. What is the least of these numbers?

102. What is the next number in the following series: 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, … ?

103. Add and express in reduced form (14/33) + (10/11).

104. Miller’s Factory has decided to run nonstop for three 14-hour shifts. The whistle to start the first shift is to blow at 9:00 a.m. At what time should the whistle blow to end the third shift?

105. N is an element of the set {0.2, 0.7, 1.4, 2.0, 7.0}, and (4.2N/1.2) is an integer. What is N?

106.

107. For what value of p is 3(p – 4) = 2(p + 1)?

108.

109. 

110. There are 660 feet in one furlong, and ½ of a fathom in one yard. How many fathoms are there in one furlong?

111. Which four-sided shape is always a rectangle? 

112. Zoe ate 1/8 of a pizza. Jasmine ate twice as much of the same pizza as Zoe. What is the ratio of the amount of pizza the two ate to the amount of pizza remaining?

113. Nicki has n stamps. She has half as many stamps as Mark has. Together, Nicki and Mark have 100 more stamps than Basilio. In terms of n, how many stamps does Basilio have?

114. A clock reads 5:00 am. Which of the following statements is true of the angle formed by the two hands of that clock?