SHSAT Mock Exam – 11/11/21

ENGLISH LANGUAGE ARTS

Suggested Time: 90 Minutes

57 Questions
_____________________________________________________________________________

Revising/Editing
Questions 1 – 20

Directions: For questions 1 to 6, you will be asked to recognize and correct errors in sentences or short paragraphs.

1. Which is the most precise revision for the words do Africa and the Silk Route in Eurasia?

to go to Africa and amble along the Silk Route.
to travel to Africa along the Silk Route in Eurasia.
to leave for Africa before the Silk Route in Eurasia.
to explore Africa and hike along the Silk Route in Eurasia.

2. Which edit should be made to correct this sentence?

change has to had
change enters a password to a password
change before to of
change begin working to having begun working

3. Which sentence should be revised to correct the error?

sentence 1
sentence 2
sentence 3
sentence 4

4. Which edit should be made to correct this sentence?

insert a comma after exquisite
delete the comma after overgrown
insert a comma after is
insert a comma after the first many

5. Which sentence should be revised to correct the error?

sentence 1
sentence 2
sentence 3
sentence 4

6. What is the best way to combine these sentences to clarify the relationship between the ideas?

Santiago, the main character in Ernest Hemingways The Old Man and the Sea, goes through a slump of bad luck, struggling courageously and, in the end, achieves a moral victory.
The main character in Ernest Hemingways The Old Man and the Sea is Santiago, a fisherman going through a slump of bad luck who struggles courageously and achieves a moral victory in the end.
In Ernest Hemingway’s The Old Man and the Sea, the main character is a fisherman going through a slump of bad luck, named Santiago, he struggles courageously and in the end, achieves a moral victory.
Going through a slump of bad luck, Santiago is the main character in Ernest Hemingway’s The Old Man and the Sea struggling courageously and in the end achieves a moral victory.

Directions: Read the passages below to answer questions 7 to 20. The questions will focus on improving the writing quality of the passage to follow the conventions of standard written English.

7. Which edit is needed to correct sentence 1?

change A to The
change is to are
change its to their
change employees to employees’

8. What is the best way to combine sentences 2 and 3 to clarity the relationship between ideas?

Some companies charge a standard fee, but most provide the day care free or at a nominal cost.
Some companies charge a standard fee, as a result, most provide the day care free or at a nominal cost.
Some companies charge a standard fee, then most provide the day care free or at a nominal cost.
Some companies charge a standard fee because most provide the day care free or at a nominal cost.

9. Which sentence would best follow sentence 7 to support the argument presented in the passage?

Should businesses really care about whether their employees are happy or not?
Should businesses really be in the business of health care?
Should businesses really be in the business of providing lunch for their employees?
Should businesses really be in the business of daycare?

10. Which sentence would best follow and support sentence 8?

Studies show that when a company helps its employees blend parent and worker roles, absenteeism and tardiness drop.
Studies show that when a company doesn’t help its employees blend parent and worker roles, absenteeism and tardiness drop.
Studies show that when a company helps its employees blend exercise and healthy food, employees learn to enjoy life better.
Studies show that when a company helps its employees blend work and leisure, productivity increases but the cost for the company might impede its bottom line.

11. Which revision should be added to the beginning of sentence 9?

Then,
Therefore,
Conversely,
Fortunately,

12. Which sentence is irrelevant to the argument presented in the passage and should be deleted?

sentence 9
sentence 10
sentence 11
sentence 12

13. Which concluding sentence should be added after sentence 12 to support the topic presented in the passage?

Human resource managers also estimate that every $1 spent on these programs returns $2 or more in increased productivity.
Human resources is an essential department to any company.
The lack of programs that increase worker morale is one reason why American companies produce inferior products.
When workers are alienated from their work, they tend to not appreciate what they do in the factory.

14. Which edit is needed to correct sentence 1?

change bears, so named because to bear so named, because
change North Pole to north pole
change is to are
change called “Nanook” to called, “Nanook,”

15. What is the best way to combine sentences 2 and 3 to clarify the relationship between ideas?

Most polar bears spend time along the coastal areas of northern Canada, Alaska, Norway, Siberia, and Greenland, others live on islands in the Arctic Ocean, never coming close to the mainland.
While most polar bears spend time along the coastal areas of northern Canada, Alaska, Norway, Siberia and Greenland, others live on islands in the Arctic Ocean and never come close to the mainland.
While most polar bears spend time along the coastal areas of northern Canada, Alaska, Norway, Siberia and Greenland is when others live on islands in the Arctic Ocean and never come close to the mainland.
Whenever most polar bears spend time along the coastal areas of northern Canada, Alaska, Norway, Siberia and Greenland, others live on islands in the Arctic Ocean, never coming close to the mainland.

16. Which sentence is irrelevant to the argument presented in the passage and should be deleted?

sentence 1
sentence 2
sentence 3
sentence 4

17. Which sentence would best follow sentence 5 to support the argument presented in the passage?

In addition, the bears have such a thick layer of fat that infrared photos show no detectable heat, except for their breath.
But the bears are hard to see on the snow because of their white fur.
Also, the bears have such thick skin they are well protected from the hard ice that would scratch a human.
Then, the next and most important aspect of understanding polar bears has to do with the way they raise cubs.

18. Which sentence would best follow and support sentence 6?

Full-grown polar bears may be about nine feet long and weigh between 1,000 and 1,600 pounds.
I think people need to be aware of how polar bear habitants are threatened.
The arctic ice sheets are melting at a rate that endangers the very existence of polar bears.
However, a full-grown polar bear may not withstand the major stresses caused by global warming.

19. Which revision of sentence 9 uses the most precise language?

Polar bears have no natural enemy, and since increased activity in the Arctic region has put pressure on polar bear populations, concerned groups have formed the Group to protect and serve these animals.
Polar bears have no natural enemy except man, and since increased human activity in the Arctic region has put pressure on polar bear populations, concerned groups have formed the Polar Bear Specialist Group to conserve and manage this unique animal.
Polar bears have no enemy except man, and since increased activity in the Arctic region has put pressure on polar bear populations, concerned groups have formed Groups to deal with this wonderful beast of the ice and snow.
Bears have no natural enemy except man, and since increased activity in the Arctic region has put pressure on polar populations, concerned groups have formed the Polar Bear Specialist Group to help and manage these unique.

20. Which concluding sentence should be added after sentence 10 to support the topic presented in the passage?

In 1965, there were 8,000 to 10,000 bears reported, but that population is estimated at 25,000 at the present.
Still, we can act today and change the world.
However, some people to get that these problems are real.
If we educate our children about the polar bears, we might have another generation of help.

Reading Comprehension
Questions 21-57

Directions: Analyze the passages below, and answer the commensurate questions. Only use information provided within the passage for your answers. There is only one answer for each question.

21. Which of the following best tells what this passage is about?

Picasso's motivations for becoming a painter
Picasso’s struggle to represent reality through art
the many styles Picasso experimented with during his career as an artist
the paintings Picasso created during his lifetime and their similarities

22. Which of the following works did Picasso first?

Las Meninas
The Old Guitarist
The Acrobats with Dog
Les Demoiselles d’Avignon

23. Picasso’s paintings during his Blue Period were characterized by

rosy hues and optimistic moods
artists, models, and bullfighters
somber subject matter and a limited palette
an emphasis on convey a reality rather than a still image

24. How does the quote in lines 65-67 (“We all know…truth.”) contribute to the passage?

It describes a technique used throughout Picasso’s artistic career.
It explains why Picasso changed his artistic style so frequently
It presents Picasso’s personal views on how all artists should create art.
It reveals Picasso’s motive for experimenting with different styles of art.

25. In the summer of 1905, Picasso was most likely painting

distorted and jagged female figures
lonely street performers in cool hues
athletic circus performers in bright colors
interpretations of well-known classical art

26. It can be inferred that “to impart” (line 69) most nearly means

to reveal
to analyze
to discover
to question

27. What was Cog designed to do as a demonstration of its artificial intelligence?

play chess games against human champion chess players
understands common sentences like “Bread food."
move its arm and learn by touching objects around it
communicate with humans through an artificial language

28. Some scientists dismiss computers as “all syntax and no semantics” (line 29-30) because

computers carry out instructions without understanding the meaning of their actions.
computers do not have neurons, and therefore can only process syntax.
the 32-bit microprocessors are not adequate for manipulating complex grammar.
they fear computers that have been taught semantics might try to take over the world.

29. What is the main point of Gary Kasparov’s comment in lines 58-59 (“could…table.”)?

Computers do not smell like the human players he has competed against in the past.
A computer that merely follows rules can achieve something that resembles thought.
Intelligence should he defined as the ability to adapt to an environment.
Computers will eventually learn to think as deeply as humans do.

30. Why did researchers at MIT build Cog?

to build a machine more powerful than Deep Blue to defeat Gan' Kasparov in chess
to create a computer that can interact with the world more naturally than Deep Blue
to demonstrate that modern computers have made the leap to thinking
to program a computer to make its own logical deductions

31. Some scientists are hopeful that computers will one day learn to think because computers

are capable of conscious as well as subconscious modes of thought
can learn from previous experience
are experts at syntax and semantics
can already make independent logical deduction

32. The “others” (line 84) would most likely agree that

researchers working on Cog will not be able to recreate human intelligence in a machine.
Cog will probably learn faster if it were designed to look more human.
Cog is more intellectually developed than are most human babies.
scientists are likely to create a computer capable of human-like thinking very soon.

33. Which answer best describes the purpose of this passage?

To show the reader why golf is better than other sports
To convince the reader to try golf
To provide the reader with a brief explanation of golf
To tell the reader a story about golf

34. Based on the passage, why might “uninitiated television viewers often assume golf is boring?”

Golf is primarily a game of internal strategizing and disciplined execution.
The rules of golf are highly complex and difficult to explain to new fans.
Golf requires too much athletic skill for most people to appreciate.
Televised golf has commercial breaks, which slow down the action.

35. Based on the passage, which iron could potentially hit a golf ball the farthest?

Seven
Five
Two
Four

36. If A, B, C, and D played a competitive round of golf together, which score would win the game?

120
79
84
102

37. Based on the passage, which of these scenarios is the worst outcome in terms of score?

Dennis hit his ball into the water once.
Dennis hit his ball into two sand traps, but he kept his club from touching the ground as he got it out both times.
Dennis hit his ball into the water once, and then into two sand traps, but he kept his club from touching the ground both times as he got out of the bunkers.
Dennis hit his ball into two sand traps, and he allowed his club to touch the ground both times that he hit the ball out.

38. Based on the passage, which is the best explanation of why golf can be frustrating?

All the equipment you need to play golf is very expensive.
When you’re having a bad day on the golf course, you often have nobody to blame but yourself.
Golfers are highly competitive and often give each other a hard time about past failures and embarrassing moments.
Playing golf involves highly complex math.

39. How best could this passage be described?

A study of the aerodynamic tendencies of hats.
An analysis as to why there persists a preference for traditional sports over futuristic sports.
A list of ways that irritancies can give amusement.
A satirical analysis of modern irritation.

40. Why does the author mention running for sport?

To show that running alone is not a sufficient cause to be irritated.
To assert the irritation associated with sports.
To show that sports are as ridiculous as running after one’s hat.
To show that running after one's hat is already a sport.

41. Why did the author claim that the old man should be thanked?

Because he was illustrating the athletic prowess of the elderly.
Because he was not irritated, despite the situation.
Because he was providing amusement to onlookers.
Because he served in the past wars.

42. What “principle” does the author refer to in his final paragraph?

Do not run after that which you cannot reach.
Do not take mundane occurrences too seriously.
Do not participate in sports that you do not enjoy.
Do not swear.

43. What is not explicitly mentioned as a situation that makes people unnecessarily annoyed?

Having your hat fly away in the wind.
Chasing after a job.
Having your desk drawer jam.
Not doing well in school.

44. What does the author imply when he mentions that one could view chasing his or her hat as a hunt?

Our irritation over mundane activities is rightfully placed.
People are not overly irritated while hunting.
Hunting in the woods makes even mundane tasks pleasurable.
Only the wealthy hunt.

45. What is this passage mostly about?

Medieval society may not have practiced ideals such as equality perfectly, but these ideals were important to the society.
The stoics preached equality.
Nobles and slaves were considered equals.
Nobles and slaves were treated the same by the church.

46. Based on the passage, the nobleman in paragraph four was most likely joining what kind of monastery?

Benedictine
Stoic
Medieval
Church

47. Which group believed that there was a “Brotherhood of Man,” according to the passage?

Nobleman
Churches
Medieval prophets
Stoics

48. What is implied about medieval society?

Medieval society was more advanced than contemporary society.
Society was heavily stratified.
There were no kings.
Nobles owned slaves, but not by choice.

49. What is the purpose of the story in paragraph four?

To illustrate that not everyone agreed with slavery.
To illustrate how high-minded the Benedictines were.
To illustrate how concepts of equality were enacted in medieval society.
To illustrate how a slave could become free.

50. What would the author most likely agree with?

Medieval society was more enlightened than contemporary society.
An individual can have an ideal without necessarily following the ideal perfectly.
The medieval period was the most important moment in the development of individualism as a concept.
The nobleman in the story made the right choice to join the monastery.

51. What is this passage mostly about?

Why people need to discuss their feelings using reason.
The importance of reason in explaining one’s emotions.
Why feelings should have priority over reason.
Why it is important to be in touch with one’s feelings.

52. What does the author imply about Mr. Locke?

He does not give priority to feelings over rules.
He is in agreement with the author.
He is very intelligent.
He is very unintelligent.

53. What does the author believe to be the relationship between feelings and reason?

The author believes that reason comes before feelings.
The author believes that reason and feelings are distinct.
The author believes that reason is used to provide explanation for one’s feelings.
The author does not believe in reason.

54. What would be an example of how the author believes the relationship between feelings and reason to operate?

A person believes he should feel happy for a friend and then feels happy.
A person is taught that he should hate someone else and develops hatred for that person.
A person feels ill at the thought of hurting an animal and then becomes a vegetarian.
A person hates math but learns it anyway.

55. What does the author imply about an individual who does not use reason adeptly?

He/She is more intelligent than one who does use reason adeptly.
He/She is less intelligent than one who does use reason adeptly.
He/She has greater common sense than one who uses reason adeptly.
He/She is not necessarily wrong in his/ her beliefs.

56. What does the author imply about the man who “may be able to give no account of the manner in which it affects him?“

He can be wiser than the person who is able to argue their point effectively.
The person is wiser than someone who can argue their point correctly.
The person would understand his position more closely if he could discuss it using rules.
The man could feel stronger about his belief.

57. How does the author feel about a person “whose practical convictions do not in almost all cases outrun his deliberate understanding” (lines 56-57)?

He thinks that person is very wise.
He thinks that person will live a very fulfilling life.
He thinks that person would agree with Locke.
He thinks that person is pathetic.

Mathematics
Suggested Time: 90 minutes
57 questions
_____________________________________________

Write-In Problems
Questions 58-62

Directions: The following five questions are write-in problems. Please be sure to write your answer in the boxes below each question.

58. A bag contains 4 blue, 5 green, and 3 red marbles. How many green marbles must be added to the bag so that the probability of picking a green marble is 75%?

You must add green marbles to the bag so that the probability of picking a green marble is 75%

59. A charity box contains 220 pennies, 120 nickels, and some dimes and 24 quarters. If the coins have a total value of $21.70, how many dimes are there in the box?

There are dimes in the box.

60. What is the value of x in the diagram?

x =

61. A group of 59 people waited in the lobby for the elevator which could take exactly 13 people at a time. If the elevator was always riding with full capacity, how many people of the group would have taken the last ride?

There are people in the group taking the last ride.

62. How many two-digit numbers greater than 50 leave a remainder of 2 when divided by 5 and 3?

There are two-digit numbers greater than 50 that leave a remainder of 2 when divided by 5 and 3

63. A survey found that 80 percent of the apartments in City G have smoke alarms installed. Of these, 20 percent have smoke alarms that are not working. What percent of the apartments in City G were found to have working smoke alarms?

16%
64%
66 ⅔ %
74%

64. 2⁴ x 4³ =

8¹²
8⁷
6⁷
2¹⁰

65. On a scaled map, a distance of 10 centimeters represents 5 kilometers. If a street is 750 meters long, what is its length on the map, in centimeters?

1.5
3.5
5.2
7.0

66. An hour-long test has 60 problems. If a student completes 30 problems in 20 minutes, how many seconds does he have on average for completing each of the remaining problems?

44
80
96
108

67. The product of 3 different positive integers is 6. What is their sum?

5
6
7
8

68. Ahmed finds out that by wearing different combinations of the jackets, shirts, and pairs of pants that he owns, he can make up 90 different outfits. If he owns 5 jackets and 3 pairs of pants, how many shirts does he own?

3
6
12
18

69. In the figure below, what is the value of a?

55
60
65
70

70. If x – 1 is a multiple of 3, which of the following must be the next multiple of 3?

x
x + 2
x + 3
3x

71. When x is divided by 5, the remainder is 4. When x is divided by 9, the remainder is 0. What is a possible value of x?

45
59
109
144

72. Lauren runs around an oval quarter-mile track, completing one lap every 2 minutes, 20 seconds. If she starts running 3 miles at 12:02 p.m., at approximately what time will she finish her 3- mile run at half this speed?

12:09 p.m.
12:16 p.m.
12:30 p.m.
12:58 p.m.

73. In the figure below, the area of the triangle ABC is 6. If BC = CD, what is the area of triangle ACD?

6
8
9
10

74. The ratio of x to y to z is 3 to 6 to 8. If y = 24, what is the value of x + z?

11
33
44
66

75. In the figure below, B is the midpoint of AC, and D is the mid point of CE. If AB = 5 and BD = 8, what is the length of DE?

8
5
4
3

76. In the figure below, if m || n, which of the following must be equal to a?

b + c
c + d
c + e
d + e

77. A flight leaves New York with one-eighths of its seats vacant. Two-thirds of the passengers get off at the first destination and no other passengers board the flight. If the flight continues to its next destination with 63 passengers, how many seats are on the plane?

108
165
189
216

78. The figure above is a blueprint for a part of a tiny apartment. If the total area of the apartment is 258 sq. ft. and all walls intersect at right angles, what is the area of the square kitchen?

16 sq.ft.
18 sq.ft.
25 sq. ft.
36 sq. ft.

79. Line L is described on the xy-plane by the equation y = -2x – 3. Another line M is perpendicular to L. What is the slope of M?

-2
-1/2
1/2
2

80. How many square titles measuring 9 inches on a side will be required to cover the floor of a rectangular room whose length is 32 yards and width is 18 yards? (Assume that one layer of tiles will be required to cover the floor.)

256
576
3,072
9,216

81. Bradley got a grade of 86 in math, 82 in reading and 96 in music. What should his combined score in physics and history be if he has an 88 average among all five subjects?

176
188
264
440

82. Jocelyn has two job offers to sell plants. Offer A pays $50 per day and offer B pays $30 per day plus a commission of $3 for every plant she sells. How many plants does she need to sell each day to make offer B better paying than offer A?

6
7
10
20

83. A can of cat food can feed 3 adult cats or 5 kittens. Five cans of cat food can feed 15 kittens and how many adult cats?

15
10
9
6

84. The graph shows the temperature, T, of a pot of water being heated over time, t. On average, how quickly did the temperature increase during the first 8 minutes?

10 degrees per minute
12 degrees per minute
13 degrees per minute
14 degrees per minute

85. The hour and minute hands of a clock create a 60 angle at 2 o’clock. How many minutes later is the next time when the hour and minute hands again create a 60° angle?

20 minutes
22 minutes
48 minutes
60 minutes

86. Two English ships set sail from Hebrides at the same time. The Ark Royal sailed due west at 20 kilometers per hour while the Golden Hind sailed due north at 15 kilometers per hour. After how many hours will the straight-line distance between the two ships be 100 kilometers?

2 Hours
3 Hours
4 Hours
5 Hours

87. Nancy buys a box of beads for $20.00 and hires Kim at $9.50 per hour to make bracelets using the beads. Kim makes 66 bracelets in 11 hours using all the beads. If Nancy wants to make a profit of $90.00 after she sells all the bracelets, at what price must she sell each bracelet? (Ignore the cost of any other materials used to make the bracelets)

$2.00
$2.50
$3.00
$3.25

5_4_6_3 = x

88. If each of the operations +, x, and -, is used exactly once to complete the equation above, all of the following could be a value of x EXCEPT

-16
19
26
51

89. The wheels of a car have a diameter of 10 meters. If the speed of the car is 50 meters per hour, how many revolutions does one wheel make in one hour?

5
50/π
10
5/π

90. A circle is inscribed in a square. What is the probability that a penny, if thrown, will fall in the shaded region below?

1
π – 2
1 – (π/4)
(π/2)

91. What is ( (10%) • (10%) ) / 100% ?

1%
10%
.001
1

92. The greatest integer function of x, gives the largest integer that is less than x and is represented by: [x], what is [10%] + 1?

1
1.1
11
11%

93. Sara is stuck in a circular field. She knows that the area of the circular field is 100 square meters. She walks at a speed of 10 meters per minute. How far does she have to walk from one end of the circular field to the other end assuming she must cross through the center?

√(100/π)
2√(100/π)
10√(100/π)
0.2√(100/π)

94. The Fibonacci Sequence involves taking two previous numbers and adding them together to get the next. If the first two Fibonacci numbers are 0 and 1, what is the mean of the first 5 Fibonnaci numbers?

5/6
7/6
7/5
1

95. If
1 slack = x vaks
9 vaks = 12 hips,

How many slacks are in 24 hips?

2
9/x
18/x
x/9

96. What is the value of 11² / 10² ?

12.1
121
.121
1.21

97.

2
3
4
5

98. How many nonpositive integers are between -3 and 5. inclusive?

1
3
4
6

99. A number is squared and added to its reciprocal. If that number is represented by x, what is the expression?

x² + 1
x² + ( 1/x )
x² + (1/x²)
(x⁴ + 1) / x²

100. If I increase the volume of a ball by 50% two times in a row, what is the percent increase assuming that the initial volume of the ball was 20?

25%
50%
75%
125%

101.

B and F are the midpoints of the sides AC and AE respectively. What is the area of the triangle, BCD?

56
110
200
220

102. If the length of the side of a square is, 7^a, what is the area?

7^a
49^a
7^2a
7a^a

103. What is the circumference of the dotted section of the circle whose center is 0 below?

6π
12π
24π
48π

104. Given that 0 < x < 1, and set A = {x, x², x³ x⁴}, what is the smallest value in set A?

x²
x³
x⁴
Cannot be determined from the information given.

105. Sammy has a faulty clock. Every 15 degrees that one of the hands moves, 5 minutes passes. If a hand is initially 5:35 PM, in how long will the minute hand be at the same position?

65 minutes
2 hours
1 hours
45 minutes

106. If (x – 2)(x + 2) = ax² + bx + c, what is the sum of a, b and c?

-4
-3
0
1

107. Natalie walks in a special way. After every 2 steps, she takes 1 step in the opposite direction. She starts at point A and walks forward. When she is 7 steps away from point A, she has reached her destination, point B. How many steps in total did she take to get from point A to B?

7
8
17
15

-C
-m
2m
0

109. Two sides of a triangle are 6 and 8. What is the length of the third side?

2
4
5
Cannot be uniquely determined.

110. 2 + (1/3) = (14/b), what is b?

3
6
7
9

111. In the formula V = r²h, if h is doubled and r triples, then V is multiplied by?

6
9
12
18

2x
x/2
3x
Cannot be uniquely determined.

The following graph relates to questions 113 and 114.

113. What was the approximate percentage decrease in average annual salary from 2011 to 2012?

14.3%
15.2%
50%
25%

114. What was the average salary in 2015 if it was 10% greater than the median salary for the previous five years?

$253,000
$264,000
$275,000
$286,000